from what i know the uk uses common law right ?
but why does scotland use civil law i mean scotland is apart of the uk right
so would that not mean the scotland should use common law
Freeman Stephen wrote:england and wales are common law. scotland only includes some elements of common law where it has been influenced by england and the colonies.
scottmurray wrote:Interestingly all land in scotland is ollodial title meaning not property of the crown.Meaning ownership is absolute,perhaps why trespass is not valid in scotland ......otherwise you could refuse entry to your property by the authorities.
scottmurray wrote:Im not trying to convince you or sell you something.do your own research if you want proof its not hidden its common knowledge.......heres a link
http://www.scottishlaw.org.uk/lawscotla ... wland.html
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